Complete Cell Cycle & Cell Division Question Bank & Solutions (90 Questions)
Q1 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
Roughly what fraction of the cell cycle is interphase?
(A)
About 5%
(B)
About half
(C)
About 75%
(D)
More than 95%
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) More than 95%
Interphase is the long preparatory phase; the M phase is comparatively brief (~1 hr in human cells).
Q2 of 90
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A typical human cell in culture divides approximately once every:
(A)
90 minutes
(B)
6 hours
(C)
24 hours
(D)
7 days
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) 24 hours
Human cells ~24 h; yeast is the fast one at ~90 min.
Q3 of 90
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Yeast can complete its cell cycle in about:
(A)
90 minutes
(B)
24 hours
(C)
12 hours
(D)
3 hours
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) 90 minutes
Yeast divides roughly every 90 minutes.
Q4 of 90
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In which phase does DNA replication occur?
(A)
G1 phase
(B)
S phase
(C)
G2 phase
(D)
M phase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) S phase
S = Synthesis; DNA content doubles from 2C to 4C.
Q5 of 90
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During S phase, the chromosome number:
(A)
doubles
(B)
halves
(C)
stays the same
(D)
triples
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) stays the same
DNA amount doubles, but each chromosome simply gains a second chromatid — number is unchanged.
Q6 of 90
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During S phase the DNA content of the cell changes from:
(A)
4C to 2C
(B)
2C to 4C
(C)
1C to 2C
(D)
2C to 1C
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) 2C to 4C
Replication doubles DNA: 2C → 4C.
Q7 of 90
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In which phase is the cell metabolically active and growing but NOT replicating DNA?
(A)
S
(B)
G2
(C)
G1
(D)
M
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) G1
G1 = growth without DNA replication.
Q8 of 90
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Proteins and tubulin needed for the spindle are chiefly synthesised in:
(A)
G1
(B)
S
(C)
G2
(D)
Telophase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) G2
G2 prepares the cell for mitosis, including spindle proteins.
Q9 of 90
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Which phase do cells enter when they permanently stop dividing?
(A)
G2
(B)
S
(C)
G0
(D)
Prophase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) G0
G0 is the quiescent stage; cells exit from G1.
Q10 of 90
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Cells exit the cell cycle into G0 from which phase?
(A)
G2
(B)
S
(C)
M
(D)
G1
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) G1
G0 is entered from G1.
Q11 of 90
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Which of these is a classic example of a cell in G0?
(A)
Skin epidermal cell
(B)
Bone marrow stem cell
(C)
Heart muscle cell
(D)
Intestinal crypt cell
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Heart muscle cell
Heart muscle cells and neurons typify G0 (non-dividing but active).
Q12 of 90
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In animal cells, the centriole duplicates during:
(A)
G1
(B)
S phase
(C)
Prophase
(D)
Anaphase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) S phase
Centriole duplication happens in S phase, in the cytoplasm.
Q13 of 90
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The M phase consists of:
(A)
Only karyokinesis
(B)
Only cytokinesis
(C)
Karyokinesis then cytokinesis
(D)
S phase then G2
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Karyokinesis then cytokinesis
M phase = nuclear division (karyokinesis) followed by cytoplasmic division (cytokinesis).
Q14 of 90
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Mitosis is best described as a(n):
(A)
Reductional division
(B)
Equational division
(C)
Haploid division
(D)
Multiple fission
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Equational division
Mitosis is equational — number conserved, daughters identical.
Q15 of 90
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What is the correct order of mitosis stages?
(A)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
(B)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(C)
Metaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Anaphase
(D)
Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
PMAT — 'Please Make A Two'.
Q16 of 90
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During prophase, which structure disappears?
(A)
Spindle fibres
(B)
Nuclear envelope
(C)
Chromosomes
(D)
Centromere
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Nuclear envelope
Nuclear envelope, nucleolus, ER and Golgi disappear in prophase.
Q17 of 90
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Chromosomes line up at the equator during:
(A)
Prophase
(B)
Metaphase
(C)
Anaphase
(D)
Telophase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Metaphase
Metaphase = Middle; they are also most condensed here.
Q18 of 90
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Spindle fibres attach to chromosomes at the:
(A)
Telomere
(B)
Kinetochore
(C)
Nucleolus
(D)
Cell plate
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Kinetochore
The kinetochore is the protein disc on the centromere where spindle fibres attach.
Q19 of 90
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Chromosomes are most highly condensed during:
(A)
Prophase
(B)
Metaphase
(C)
Anaphase
(D)
Interphase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Metaphase
Maximum condensation occurs at metaphase.
Q20 of 90
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Centromeres split and sister chromatids separate during:
(A)
Prophase
(B)
Metaphase
(C)
Anaphase
(D)
Telophase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Anaphase
Anaphase = Apart; centromeres split.
Q21 of 90
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In anaphase, chromosomes move to the poles:
(A)
Arms first
(B)
Centromere first
(C)
Randomly
(D)
In pairs
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Centromere first
Daughter chromosomes move centromere-leading, arms trailing.
Q22 of 90
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The nuclear envelope and nucleolus reappear during:
(A)
Prophase
(B)
Metaphase
(C)
Anaphase
(D)
Telophase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Telophase
Telophase reverses prophase — envelope, nucleolus, ER, Golgi return.
Q23 of 90
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Cytokinesis in an animal cell occurs by:
(A)
Cell plate formation
(B)
Cleavage furrow
(C)
Cell wall deposition
(D)
Budding only
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Cleavage furrow
A cleavage furrow pinches the membrane from outside inward.
Q24 of 90
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Cytokinesis in a plant cell occurs by:
(A)
Cleavage furrow
(B)
Cell plate formation
(C)
Pinching of membrane
(D)
Fragmentation
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Cell plate formation
A cell plate grows from the centre outward, since the rigid wall can't pinch.
Q25 of 90
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The plant cell plate forms and grows:
(A)
Outside → inward
(B)
Centre → outward (inside-out)
(C)
Top → bottom
(D)
Randomly
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Centre → outward (inside-out)
Cell plate grows centrifugally from the middle toward the wall.
Q26 of 90
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A multinucleate cell formed when karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis is called a:
(A)
Zygote
(B)
Syncytium
(C)
Gamete
(D)
Meiocyte
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Syncytium
That's a syncytium — e.g. coconut's liquid endosperm.
Q27 of 90
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The liquid endosperm of coconut is an example of a:
(A)
Haploid tissue
(B)
Syncytium
(C)
Meristem
(D)
Callus
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Syncytium
It is a free-nuclear (syncytial) tissue.
Q28 of 90
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In plants, mitosis is normally restricted to:
(A)
Cortex
(B)
Meristematic tissues
(C)
Phloem
(D)
Epidermis only
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Meristematic tissues
Meristems are the sites of mitotic division in plants.
Q29 of 90
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Which is NOT a significance of mitosis?
(A)
Growth
(B)
Repair of tissues
(C)
Genetic variation
(D)
Restoring nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Genetic variation
Variation is a feature of meiosis, not mitosis (mitosis gives identical cells).
Q30 of 90
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Mitosis restores the balance between which two volumes?
(A)
Water and solute
(B)
Nuclear and cytoplasmic
(C)
Vacuole and cytosol
(D)
ER and Golgi
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Nuclear and cytoplasmic
It restores the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
Q31 of 90
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Meiosis produces how many daughter cells?
(A)
Two
(B)
Three
(C)
Four
(D)
Eight
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Four
Four haploid cells result from meiosis.
Q32 of 90
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The daughter cells of meiosis are:
(A)
Diploid and identical
(B)
Haploid and identical
(C)
Haploid and variable
(D)
Diploid and variable
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Haploid and variable
Four haploid, genetically variable cells.
Q33 of 90
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How many rounds of DNA replication occur in meiosis?
(A)
One
(B)
Two
(C)
Three
(D)
Zero
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) One
One replication (before Meiosis I), followed by two divisions.
Q34 of 90
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Meiosis occurs in the:
(A)
Somatic cells
(B)
Meiocytes (germ cells)
(C)
Meristem
(D)
Cork cambium
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Meiocytes (germ cells)
Meiosis is confined to meiocytes/gamete mother cells.
Q35 of 90
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Which division is reductional?
(A)
Mitosis
(B)
Meiosis I
(C)
Meiosis II
(D)
Amitosis
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Meiosis I
Meiosis I halves the chromosome number (reductional).
Q36 of 90
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Which division is equational and mitosis-like?
(A)
Meiosis I
(B)
Meiosis II
(C)
Both I and II
(D)
Neither
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Meiosis II
Meiosis II separates sister chromatids like mitosis (equational).
Q37 of 90
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The correct order of Prophase I sub-stages is:
(A)
Zygotene, Leptotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis
(B)
Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis
(C)
Leptotene, Pachytene, Zygotene, Diakinesis, Diplotene
(D)
Diakinesis, Diplotene, Pachytene, Zygotene, Leptotene
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis
Lazy Zebras Pull Down Drapes.
Q38 of 90
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Synapsis of homologous chromosomes occurs in:
(A)
Leptotene
(B)
Zygotene
(C)
Pachytene
(D)
Diplotene
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Zygotene
Zygotene = zip together (synapsis).
Q39 of 90
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The synaptonemal complex forms during:
(A)
Leptotene
(B)
Zygotene
(C)
Diakinesis
(D)
Metaphase I
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Zygotene
It assembles between paired homologues in Zygotene.
Q40 of 90
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A pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called a:
(A)
Centromere
(B)
Bivalent (tetrad)
(C)
Chiasma
(D)
Spindle
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Bivalent (tetrad)
A bivalent, also called a tetrad (four chromatids).
Q41 of 90
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Crossing over takes place during:
(A)
Leptotene
(B)
Zygotene
(C)
Pachytene
(D)
Diplotene
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Pachytene
Pachytene = swap; crossing over at recombination nodules.
Q42 of 90
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Crossing over occurs between:
(A)
Sister chromatids
(B)
Non-sister chromatids of homologues
(C)
Two centromeres
(D)
Two spindles
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Non-sister chromatids of homologues
Segments are exchanged between non-sister chromatids.
Q43 of 90
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The enzyme that mediates crossing over is:
(A)
Ligase
(B)
Recombinase
(C)
Helicase
(D)
Polymerase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Recombinase
Recombinase acts at the recombination nodule.
Q44 of 90
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Recombination nodules appear on the bivalent during:
(A)
Leptotene
(B)
Pachytene
(C)
Diplotene
(D)
Diakinesis
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Pachytene
Recombination nodules are sites of crossing over in Pachytene.
Q45 of 90
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The synaptonemal complex dissolves and chiasmata become visible in:
(A)
Zygotene
(B)
Pachytene
(C)
Diplotene
(D)
Diakinesis
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Diplotene
Diplotene — chiasmata (X-shapes) appear.
Q46 of 90
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Chiasmata are:
(A)
Sites of DNA replication
(B)
X-shaped sites of crossing over
(C)
Protein discs on centromeres
(D)
Spindle attachment points
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) X-shaped sites of crossing over
They mark where non-sister chromatids stay joined after crossing over.
Q47 of 90
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Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs in:
(A)
Diplotene
(B)
Diakinesis
(C)
Metaphase I
(D)
Anaphase I
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Diakinesis
Chiasmata move to the chromosome ends in Diakinesis.
Q48 of 90
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The end of Prophase I is marked by:
(A)
DNA replication
(B)
Disappearance of nucleolus and nuclear envelope
(C)
Formation of cell plate
(D)
Cytokinesis
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Disappearance of nucleolus and nuclear envelope
Diakinesis ends Prophase I as the nucleolus and NE disappear and the spindle assembles.
Q49 of 90
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Bivalents (not single chromosomes) align at the equator during:
(A)
Mitotic metaphase
(B)
Metaphase I
(C)
Metaphase II
(D)
Anaphase I
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Metaphase I
In Metaphase I the paired homologues (bivalents) line up.
Q50 of 90
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In Anaphase I, what separates?
(A)
Sister chromatids
(B)
Homologous chromosomes
(C)
Centrioles only
(D)
Nucleoli
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Homologous chromosomes
Homologues separate; sister chromatids stay joined — the reductional step.
Q51 of 90
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In Anaphase I, the sister chromatids:
(A)
Separate completely
(B)
Remain joined at their centromeres
(C)
Disappear
(D)
Fuse together
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Remain joined at their centromeres
They stay attached; only homologues move apart in Anaphase I.
Q52 of 90
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The pair of cells produced at the end of Meiosis I is called a:
(A)
Tetrad
(B)
Dyad
(C)
Bivalent
(D)
Zygote
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Dyad
Meiosis I gives a dyad of haploid cells.
Q53 of 90
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Interkinesis is characterised by:
(A)
DNA replication
(B)
No DNA replication
(C)
Crossing over
(D)
Synapsis
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) No DNA replication
The gap between Meiosis I and II has NO S phase.
Q54 of 90
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In Anaphase II, what separates?
(A)
Homologous chromosomes
(B)
Bivalents
(C)
Sister chromatids
(D)
Nucleoli
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Sister chromatids
Centromeres split and sister chromatids separate in Anaphase II.
Q55 of 90
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The overall product of meiosis is:
(A)
2 diploid cells
(B)
4 diploid cells
(C)
4 haploid cells
(D)
2 haploid cells
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) 4 haploid cells
Four haploid cells from one diploid meiocyte.
Q56 of 90
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Which is a source of genetic variation in meiosis?
(A)
Cleavage furrow
(B)
Crossing over
(C)
Nucleolus reformation
(D)
Cell plate formation
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Crossing over
Crossing over (and independent assortment) generate variation.
Q57 of 90
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Independent assortment of homologues occurs at:
(A)
Metaphase I
(B)
Telophase II
(C)
S phase
(D)
G0
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Metaphase I
Random maternal/paternal orientation of bivalents at Metaphase I.
Q58 of 90
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The chromosome number of a species is restored after meiosis by:
(A)
Mitosis
(B)
Fertilisation
(C)
Interkinesis
(D)
Cytokinesis
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Fertilisation
Fusion of two haploid gametes at fertilisation restores 2n.
Q59 of 90
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Which event does NOT occur in mitosis?
(A)
Spindle formation
(B)
Centromere splitting
(C)
Synapsis
(D)
Chromosome condensation
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Synapsis
Synapsis (and crossing over) are exclusive to Meiosis I.
Q60 of 90
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At the end of Meiosis I, each cell has:
(A)
2C DNA and n chromosomes
(B)
4C DNA and 2n chromosomes
(C)
1C DNA and n chromosomes
(D)
2C DNA and 2n chromosomes
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) 2C DNA and n chromosomes
Number is already n but DNA is still 2C (chromatids joined).
Q61 of 90
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At the end of Meiosis II, each cell has:
(A)
2C, 2n
(B)
1C, n
(C)
4C, 2n
(D)
2C, n
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) 1C, n
1C DNA, n chromosomes — fully haploid.
Q62 of 90
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Homologous chromosomes carry:
(A)
Different genes at different loci
(B)
Same genes at same loci
(C)
Only maternal alleles
(D)
No genes
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Same genes at same loci
They match gene-for-gene at the same loci (alleles may differ).
Q63 of 90
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The longest phase of the entire cell cycle is:
(A)
Prophase
(B)
Interphase
(C)
Metaphase
(D)
Telophase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Interphase
Interphase occupies >95% of the cycle.
Q64 of 90
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The longest phase of meiosis is:
(A)
Metaphase I
(B)
Prophase I
(C)
Anaphase II
(D)
Telophase II
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Prophase I
Prophase I (with its five sub-stages) is the longest.
Q65 of 90
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Number of daughter cells and ploidy from mitosis:
(A)
4, haploid
(B)
2, diploid
(C)
2, haploid
(D)
4, diploid
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) 2, diploid
Mitosis → 2 diploid cells.
Q66 of 90
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Which lines up at the metaphase plate in a normal mitotic metaphase?
(A)
Bivalents
(B)
Individual chromosomes
(C)
Tetrads
(D)
Homologue pairs
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Individual chromosomes
Individual chromosomes align single-file in mitosis.
Q67 of 90
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Cell plate formation is associated with:
(A)
Animal cytokinesis
(B)
Plant cytokinesis
(C)
Karyokinesis
(D)
Interphase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Plant cytokinesis
Plant cells build a cell plate; animals use a furrow.
Q68 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
The reduction in chromosome number in meiosis actually happens at:
(A)
Anaphase II
(B)
Anaphase I
(C)
Metaphase II
(D)
Telophase II
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Anaphase I
Anaphase I separates homologues → number becomes n.
Q69 of 90
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Which of the following is TRUE of Meiosis II?
(A)
Involves synapsis
(B)
Involves crossing over
(C)
Separates sister chromatids
(D)
Is preceded by DNA replication
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Separates sister chromatids
Meiosis II is mitosis-like and separates chromatids; no replication before it.
Q70 of 90
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A tetrad contains how many chromatids?
(A)
Two
(B)
Three
(C)
Four
(D)
Eight
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Four
Two homologues × two chromatids = four (hence 'tetrad').
Q71 of 90
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Which structure joins sister chromatids?
(A)
Kinetochore
(B)
Centromere
(C)
Chiasma
(D)
Spindle pole
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Centromere
The centromere holds sister chromatids together.
Q72 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
Assertion: DNA content doubles in S phase. Reason: The chromosome number also doubles in S phase.
(A)
Both true, Reason explains Assertion
(B)
Both true, Reason does not explain Assertion
(C)
Assertion true, Reason false
(D)
Both false
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Assertion true, Reason false
DNA doubles (true) but chromosome NUMBER does not change in S phase (Reason false).
Q73 of 90
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Assertion: Meiosis I is reductional. Reason: Homologous chromosomes separate in Anaphase I.
(A)
Both true, Reason explains Assertion
(B)
Both true, Reason does not explain Assertion
(C)
Assertion true, Reason false
(D)
Both false
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Both true, Reason explains Assertion
Separation of homologues is exactly why Meiosis I halves the number.
Q74 of 90
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Assertion: Interphase is called the resting phase. Reason: The cell is metabolically inactive during interphase.
(A)
Both true, Reason explains Assertion
(B)
Assertion true, Reason false
(C)
Assertion false, Reason true
(D)
Both false
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Assertion true, Reason false
The name is traditional, but the cell is highly active — so the Reason is false.
Q75 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
If a cell shows 4C DNA and 2n chromosomes, it is most likely in:
(A)
G1
(B)
Early S
(C)
G2 or mitotic prophase/metaphase
(D)
End of meiosis II
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) G2 or mitotic prophase/metaphase
Post-replication (4C) but pre-reduction (2n) fits G2 or mitotic prophase/metaphase.
Q76 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
A species with 2n = 24 will have how many chromosomes per cell after Meiosis I?
(A)
24
(B)
12
(C)
48
(D)
6
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) 12
Anaphase I halves the number: 24 → 12 (each still 2-chromatid).
Q77 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
Which sequence correctly pairs the stage with its event?
(A)
Zygotene – crossing over
(B)
Pachytene – synapsis
(C)
Diplotene – chiasmata visible
(D)
Diakinesis – synaptonemal complex forms
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Correct Answer: (C) Diplotene – chiasmata visible
Diplotene is when the chiasmata become visible; the others are mismatched.
Q78 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
A drug that blocks recombinase would most directly reduce:
(A)
DNA replication
(B)
Genetic variation via crossing over
(C)
Cleavage furrow formation
(D)
Spindle assembly
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Genetic variation via crossing over
Recombinase enables crossing over, a key source of variation.
Q79 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
In which of these is the nuclear envelope present?
(A)
Metaphase
(B)
Anaphase
(C)
Interphase
(D)
Prophase (late)
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Interphase
The envelope is intact during interphase; it breaks down by prophase.
Q80 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
The dyad of cells is directly converted into a tetrad of cells by:
(A)
Meiosis I
(B)
Meiosis II
(C)
Mitosis
(D)
Cytokinesis of G2
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Meiosis II
Each dyad cell divides in Meiosis II → four (tetrad of) cells.
Q81 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
Which of the following correctly describes coconut water/liquid endosperm?
(A)
Diploid cellular tissue
(B)
A free-nuclear syncytium
(C)
A meristem
(D)
A gamete
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) A free-nuclear syncytium
It is a syncytium — many nuclei, no cell partitioning.
Q82 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
Genetic variation from independent assortment arises because:
(A)
Chromatids exchange segments
(B)
Homologues orient randomly at Metaphase I
(C)
The nucleolus reforms
(D)
DNA replicates twice
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Homologues orient randomly at Metaphase I
Random orientation of each bivalent at Metaphase I mixes maternal/paternal chromosomes.
Q83 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
Which is the correct chronological order for a meiocyte?
(A)
S → Meiosis I → interkinesis → Meiosis II
(B)
Meiosis I → S → Meiosis II
(C)
Meiosis II → interkinesis → Meiosis I
(D)
S → Meiosis II → Meiosis I
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) S → Meiosis I → interkinesis → Meiosis II
One S phase, then Meiosis I, a replication-free interkinesis, then Meiosis II.
Q84 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
Sister chromatids are genetically identical EXCEPT where affected by:
(A)
Synapsis
(B)
Crossing over
(C)
Cytokinesis
(D)
Nucleolus reformation
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Crossing over
Crossing over can make regions of sister/non-sister chromatids differ (recombinant).
Q85 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
The spindle apparatus begins to form in:
(A)
Prophase
(B)
Metaphase
(C)
Anaphase
(D)
Telophase
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Prophase
Spindle formation starts in prophase as centrosomes move apart.
Q86 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
Which correctly matches division to product number?
(A)
Mitosis → 4
(B)
Meiosis → 2
(C)
Mitosis → 2, Meiosis → 4
(D)
Both → 2
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Mitosis → 2, Meiosis → 4
Mitosis yields 2; meiosis yields 4.
Q87 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
Why must sexually reproducing organisms use meiosis?
(A)
To speed up growth
(B)
To keep chromosome number constant across generations
(C)
To repair wounds
(D)
To make identical clones
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) To keep chromosome number constant across generations
Halving in gametes + restoration at fertilisation keeps 2n stable each generation.
Q88 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
In G2 phase, which is TRUE?
(A)
DNA is 2C
(B)
DNA is 4C and chromosomes 2n
(C)
Chromosomes are haploid
(D)
DNA replication is ongoing
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) DNA is 4C and chromosomes 2n
After S, the cell is 4C, 2n and prepares for mitosis.
Q89 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
Which pair is correctly matched?
(A)
Anaphase I – sister chromatids separate
(B)
Anaphase II – homologues separate
(C)
Anaphase I – homologues separate
(D)
Metaphase I – single chromosomes align
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Anaphase I – homologues separate
Anaphase I separates homologues; Anaphase II separates chromatids.
Q90 of 90
NEET NCERT Line-by-Line
In a cell with 2n = 8, how many bivalents form during Zygotene?
Show Answer & NCERT Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) 4
Homologues pair up, so 8 chromosomes form 4 bivalents (each = 2 homologues).